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B.sc Nursing Fully Solved paper mcqs
Q. A client is receiving whole blood when she starts to shake with chills; her temperature is 101 degree Fahrenheit. The nurse should first:
A. Call the physician immediately
B. Administer the PRN dose of Aspirin
C. Start another IV, running normal saline
D. Stop the blood immediately✔
Q. Which nursing action is essential to prevent hypoxemia during tracheal suctioning?
A. Removing oral and nasal secretions
B. Encouraging the patient to deep breathe and cough
C. Administering 100% oxygen✔
D. Auscultating the lungs to determine the baseline data
Q. A 72-year-old client was admitted for lung biopsy to rule out cancer. In order to facilitate the endotracheal intubation, the physician ordered succinylcholine (Anectine) 25mg IV slowly. Using a 20mg/ml, how many rnl did the nurse administer?
A. 0.5ml
B. 1.0ml
C. 1.25ml✔
D. 1.50ml
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease. Which finding should be reported to the charge nurse immediately?
A. BP 82/60, pulse 120✔
B. Pulse 68, respirations 24
C. BP 110/88, pulse 56
D. Pulse 82, respirations 16
Q5. The nurse is teaching the client with AIDS regarding proper food preparation. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?
A. “I should avoid adding pepper to food after it is cooked.”
B. “I can still have an occasional medium-rare steak.”✔
C. “Eating cheese and yogurt won’t help prevent AIDS-related diarrhea.”
D. “I should eat fruits and vegetables that can be peeled.”
Q6. A client taking Laniazid (isoniazid) asks the nurse how long she must take the medication before her sputum cultures will return to normal. The nurse recognizes that the client should have a negative sputum culture within:
A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 3 months✔
Q7. Which person is at greatest risk for developing Lyme’s disease?
A. Computer technician
B. Middle-school teacher
C. Dog trainer
D. Forestry worker✔
Q8. Following eruption of the primary teeth, the mother can promote
chewing by giving the toddler:
A. Pieces of hot dog
B. Celery sticks
C. Melba toast✔
D. Grapes
Q9. A client scheduled for an exploratory laparotomy tells the nurse
that she takes kava-kava (piper methysticum)for sleep. The nurse
should notify the doctor because kava-kava:
A. Increases the effects of anesthesia and post-operative analgesia✔
B. Eliminates the need for antimicrobial therapy following surgery
C. Increases urinary output, so a urinary catheter will be needed post-operatively
D. Depresses the immune system, so infection is more of a problem
Q10. The nurse is teaching circumcision care to the mother of a newborn. Which statement indicates that the mother needs further teaching?
A. “I will apply a petroleum gauze to the area once a day.”
B. “I will clean the area carefully with each diaper change.”
C. “I can place a heat lamp next to the area to speed up the healing process.”✔
D. “I should carefully observe the area for signs of infection.”
Q11. The chart of a client hospitalized with a fractured femur reveals that the client is colonized with MRSA. The nurse knows that the client:
A. Will not display symptoms of infection✔
B. Is less likely to have an infection
C. Can be placed in the room with others
D. Cannot colonize others with MRSA
Q12. A client is admitted with Clostridium difficile. The nurse would
expect the client to have:
A. Diarrhea containing blood and mucus✔
B. Cough, fever, and shortness of breath
C. Anorexia, weight loss, and fever
D. Development of deep leg ulcers
Q13. An elderly client asks the nurse how often he will need to receive
immunizations against pneumonia. The nurse should tell the client
that she will need an immunization against pneumonia:
A. Every year
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 5 years✔
D. Every 10 years
Q14. The nurse is caring for a client following a right nephrolithotomy.
Post-operatively, the client should be positioned:
A. On the right side
B. Supine
C. On the left side✔
D. Prone
Q15. A nursing assistant is referred to the employee health office with symptoms of latex allergy. The first symptom usually noticed by those with latex allergy is:
A. Oral itching after eating bananas
B. Swelling of the eyes and mouth
C. Difficulty breathing
D. Swelling and itching of the hands✔
Q16. Acticoat (silver nitrate) dressings are applied to the arms and chest of a client with full-thickness burns. The nurse should:
A. Change the dressings once per shift
B. Moisten the dressings with sterile water✔
C. Change the dressings only when they become sailed
D. Moisten the dressings with normal saline
Q17. A client is diagnosed with stage III Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The nurse recognizes that the client has involvement:
A. In a single lymph node or single site
B. In more than one node or single organ on the same side of the diaphragm
C. In lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm✔
D. In disseminated organs and tissues
Q18. A client has been receiving Rheumatrex (methotrexate) for severe
rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should tell the client to avoid taking:
A. Aspirin
B. Multivitamins✔
C. Omega 3 and omega 6 fish oils
D. Acetaminophen
Q19. A suitable diet for a client with cirrhosis and abdominal ascites is
one that is:
A. High in sodium, low in calories
B. Low in potassium, high in calories
C. High in protein, high in calories✔
D. Low in calcium, low in calories
Q20. A client with gallstones in the gall bladder is scheduled for lithotripsy. For the procedure, the client will be placed:
A. In a prone position✔
B. In a supine position
C. In a side-lying position
D. In a recumbent position
Q21. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with daily steroid
medication. Which food should the client avoid?
A. Raw oysters✔
B. Cottage cheese
C. Baked chicken
D. Green beans
Q22. A client tells the nurse that she takes St. John’s wort (hypericum perforatum) three times a day for mild depression. The nurse should tell the client that:
A. St. John’s wort seldom relieves depression.
B. She should avoid eating cold cuts and aged cheese.✔
C. Skin reactions increase with the use of sunscreens.
D. St. John’s wort will increase the amount of medication needed.
Q23. The physician has instructed the client with gout to avoid protein
sources of purine. Which protein source is high in purine?
A. Dried beans✔
B. Nuts
C. Cheese
D. Eggs
Q24. The nurse is caring for a client with a long history of bulimia. The
nurse would expect the client to have:
A. Extreme weight loss
B. Dental caries✔
C. Hair loss
D. Lanugo
25. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has an order for Thorazine
(chlorpromazine) 400mg orally twice daily. Which of the following
symptoms should be reported to the physician immediately?
A. Muscle spasms of the neck, difficulty in swallowing✔
B. Dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision
C. Lethargy, slurred speech, thirst
D. Fatigue, drowsiness, photosensitivity
Q26. The nurse is applying a Transderm Nitro (nitrogycerin) patch to a
client with angina. When applying the patch, the nurse should:
A. Shave the area before applying a new patch
B. Remove the old patch and clean the skin with alcohol
C. Cover the patch with plastic wrap and tape it in place
D. Avoid cutting the patch because it will alter the dose✔
Q27. A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted with a diagnosis of
cholinergic crisis. The nurse can expect the client to have:
A. Decreased blood pressure and pupillary meiosis✔
B. Increased heart rate and increased respirations
C. Increased respirations and increased blood pressure
D. Anoxia and absence of the cough reflex
Q28. The nurse is providing dietary teaching regarding low-sodium
diets for a client with hypertension. Which food should be avoided
by the client on a low-sodium diet?
A. Dried beans
B. Swiss cheese
C. Peanut butter
D. American cheese✔
Q29. A client is admitted to the emergency room with partial-thickness burns of his head and both arms. According to the Rule of Nines,the nurse calculates that the TBSA (total body surface area) involved is:
A. 20%
B. 27%✔
C. 35%
D. 50%
Q30. The physician has ordered a paracentesis for a client with severe
ascites. Before the procedure, the nurse should:
A. Instruct the client to void✔
B. Shave the abdomen
C. Encourage extra fluids
D. Request an abdominal X-ray
Q31. The mother of a child with chickenpox wants to know if there is a
medication that will shorten the course of the illness. Which medication is sometimes used to speed healing of the lesions and shorten the duration of fever and itching?
A. Zovirax (acyclovir)✔
B. Varivax (varicella vaccine)
C. VZIG (varicella-zoster immune globulin)
D. Periactin (cyproheptadine)
32. Which of the following clients is most likely to be a victim of elder
abuse?
A. A 62-year-old female with diverticulitis
B. A 76-year-old female with right-sided hemiplegia✔
C. A 65-year-old male with a hip replacement
D. A 72-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
Q33. A hospitalized client with severe anemia is to receive a unit of
blood. Which facet of care is most appropriate for the newly
licensed practical nurse?
A. Initiating the IV of normal saline
B. Monitoring the client’s vital signs✔
C. Initiating the blood transfusion
D. Notifying the physician of a reaction
Q34. To reduce the possibility of having a baby with a neural tube
defect, the client should be told to increase her intake of folic acid.
Dietary sources of folic acid include:
A. Meat, liver, eggs
B. Beef, fish, chicken
C. Oranges, cabbage, cantaloupe✔
D. Dried beans, sweet potatoes, Brussels sprouts
Q35. A client is admitted for suspected bladder cancer. Which one of
the following factors is most significant in the client’s diagnosis?
A. Smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 30 years✔
B. Taking hormone-replacement therapy
C. Eating foods with preservatives
D. Past employment involving asbestos
Q36. The physician has prescribed nitroglycerin buccal tablets as needed for a client with angina. The nurse should tell the client to take the tablets:
A. After engaging in strenuous activity
B. Every 4 hours to prevent chest pain
C. When he first feels chest discomfort✔
D. At bedtime to prevent nocturnal angina
Q37. The nurse is caring for an infant who is on strict intake and output. The used diaper weighs 90.5 grams. The diaper’s dry weight was 62 grams. The infant’s urine output was:
A. 10mL
B. 28.5mL✔
C. 10 grams
D. 152.5 grams
Q38. The nurse is teaching the parents of an infant with osteogenesis
imperfecta. The nurse should explain the need for:
A. Additional calcium in the infant’s diet
B. Careful handling to prevent fractures✔
C. Providing extra sensorimotor stimulation
D. Frequent testing of visual function
Q39. The nurse is preparing a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) for discharge. The nurse should tell the client to:
A. Eat a small snack before bedtime
B. Sleep on his right side
C. Avoid colas, tea, and coffee✔
D. Increase his intake of citrus fruits
Q40. The nurse is administering Dilantin (phenytoin) via nasogastric
(NG) tube. When giving the medication, the nurse should:
A. Flush the NG tube with 2-4mL of water before giving
the medication
B. Administer the medication, flush with 5mL of water,
and clamp the NG tube
C. Flush the NG tube with 5 mL of normal saline and
administer the medication
D. Flush the NG tube with 2-4oz. of water before and
after giving the medication✔
Q41. The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old in a wet hip spica cast made
from plaster of Paris. When turning the 3-year-old with a wet cast,
the nurse should:
A. Grasp the cast by the hand
B. Use an assistive sling
C. Use the palms of the hands✔
D. Obtain a lifting device
Q42. A client has a diagnosis of discoid lupus. The primary difference
in discoid lupus and systemic lupus is that discoid lupus:
A. Produces changes in the kidneys
B. Is confined to the skin✔
C. Results in damage to the heart and lungs
D. Affects both joints and muscles
Q43. The nurse is preparing to walk the post-operative client for the
first time since surgery. Before walking the client, the nurse
should:
A. Give the client pain medication
B. Assist the client in dangling his legs✔
C. Have the client breathe deeply
D. Provide the client with additional fluids
Q44. While performing a neurological assessment on a client with a
closed head injury, the licensed practical nurse notes a positive
Babinski reflex. The nurse should:
A. Recognize that the client’s condition is improving
B. Reposition the client and check reflexes again
C. Do nothing because the finding is an expected one
D. Notify the charge nurse of the finding✔
Q45. The physician has prescribed Gantrisin (sulfasoxazole) 1 gram in
divided doses for a client with a urinary tract infection. The nurse
should administer the medication:
A. With meals or a snack
B. 30 minutes before meals✔
C. 30 minutes after meals
D. At bedtime
Q46. A client hospitalized with renal calculi complains of severe pain in
the right flank. In addition to complaints of pain, the nurse can
expect to see changes in the client’s vital signs, which include:
A. Decreased pulse rate
B. Increased blood pressure✔
C. Decreased respiratory rate
D. Increased temperature
Q47. A 3-year-old is diagnosed with diarrhea caused by an infection
with salmonella. Which of the following most likely contributed to
the child’s illness?
A. Brushing the family dog
B. Playing with a pet turtle✔
C. Taking a pony ride
D. Feeding the family cat
Q48. The nurse is administering Pyridium (phenazopyridine) to a client
with cystitis. The nurse should tell the client that:
A. The urine will have a strong odor of ammonia.
B. The urinary output will increase in amount.
C. The urine will have a red-orange color.✔
D. The urinary output will decrease in amount.
Q49. The nurse is caring for an infant with atopic dermatitis. An important part of the infant’s care will be:
A. Keeping the infant warm
B. Trimming the fingernails✔
C. Using soap for bathing
D. Applying peroxide to dry areas
Q50. The nurse is providing care for a 10-month-old infant diagnosed with a Wilms tumor. Most parents report feeling a mass when:
A. The infant is diapered or bathed✔
B. The infant raises his arms
C The infant has finished a bottle
D. The infant tries to sit
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